ARNOLD KLING
August 14, 2011
The Top Political Contributors
August 11, 2011
Gender and the New Commanding Heights
August 11, 2011
Jamie Galbraith Makes an Assumption
August 11, 2011
Macroeconometrics: The Science of Hubris
August 10, 2011
Real and Nominal Bond Yields
BRYAN CAPLAN
August 14, 2011
The Effect of Thumb Sucking on Income
August 12, 2011
The Voice of Cold, Hard Truth to All Would-Be Educators
August 12, 2011
Ability, Morality, and Prosperity: A Paper and a Report
August 11, 2011
The Theory of Time and Frittering
August 10, 2011
Male Variance and the Remnants of the Gender Gap
DAVID HENDERSON
August 9, 2011
Hayek in "Unbroken", Part Two
August 8, 2011
Hayek in "Unbroken"
August 5, 2011
James Bovard on the Peace Corps
August 4, 2011
Summers Way Off on FDR and 1941
August 3, 2011
The "Amazon" Tax


I find two of Wittman's remarks to be rather interesting with regard to his empirical methodology. On p. 194 he writes,
which seems entirely confused. If Wittman can't justify in advance some theory about what conclusions would be warranted from the possible brain activities that might be observed, why does he expect anyone to believe that such a test is even relevant to his hypothesis?In a footnote at the end of the same page, he writes,
Ignore for the moment the evidence for or against this restatement of his position, and also his remark cited on p. 176 in Caplan's essay that “voter rationality and consumer rationality should be tested in the same way and compared.” If this is really Wittman's position, why do his proposed experiments, especially 4 and 5, seem to test the position Caplan attributes to him, that voters are at least as rational as consumers?