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The author at PrestoPundit in a related article titled ARNOLD KLING HAS writes:
COMMENTS (24 to date)
Jim writes:
I guess I'm missing the point. Let's assume Bailey Brothers Building & Loan holds mortgages on 500 homes in Bedford Falls, said loans being its sole asset class. When Bedford Falls' principal employer closes its doors due to Chinese competition, would a run on the Building and Loan be more or less likely if, instead of the individual mortgages, it held a portfolio of MBS? Posted October 6, 2008 7:56 PM
Nick writes:
Thank God for this. I've read probably a hundred articles on the mortgage crisis, and this is the only one that is written clearly enough to make me believe that the author is thinking clearly. Posted October 6, 2008 8:12 PM
Francis writes:
I have a question. Method A has always been the one used in Canada. It still is. Yet it survived the inflation of the 70s and 80s, which was the same here as in the U.S. Why? It is still the same banks (really the same: Royal Bank, Bank of Montreal, etc.) that supply loans for mortgages. So why didn't they go through the same troubles? Posted October 6, 2008 8:32 PM
DWAnderson writes:
I have found your posts incredibly illuminating and your apearance on BloggingHeads.tv discussing the same subject was excellent as well. However, I think you need to better explain why you think the mortgage securitization market would not exist absent government favors. Absent that explanation I would think such a market would allow finacial firms to pursue what they are best at, e.g. firms that are great at originating loans (including evaluating default risk) could do that and firms that are best at aggregating investment funds or deposits could focus on that. I would think that sort of specialization would be made possible by a market for mortgage securitization and would normally be a good thing. BTW, you made a strong case that government favors created the market and indeed crowded out the alternatives, I just don't see why the market would so clearly not exist (albeit in a lesser form) absent those favors. Reprinted at PeoplesRepublicOf.com Posted October 6, 2008 9:13 PM
sohaib writes:
I've been reading this blog for around a year now but have never commented. I feel compelled to on this entry. It is simply excellent. Thank you. Posted October 6, 2008 9:18 PM
Steve Roth writes:
Nice. On suits and geeks: just to point out some excellent reporting from Bloomberg suggesting that the same was happening at the rating agencies. (Though the reporting suggest at least borderline criminality by the suits there.) http://www.bloomberg.com/apps/news?pid=20601109&sid=ah839IWTLP9s& http://www.bloomberg.com/apps/news?pid=newsarchive&sid=ax3vfya_Vtdo It also suggests that your previous comments on the ratings agencies' minimal effects were perhaps...sanguine. Posted October 6, 2008 9:49 PM
cputter writes:
A very clear and concise analysis can be found at:
Posted October 6, 2008 10:09 PM
Ami writes:
Thanks for the elaborate, yet readable history to the present problem in mortgage securities market. Very informative. Posted October 6, 2008 10:29 PM
Frejus writes:
Interesting analysis from a person who was arguing for years that housing prices could very well be priced just right. E.g. you said: "For housing, I would rate the probability of a bubble at about 20 percent." From: http://econlog.econlib.org/archives/2006/04/housing_bubble_3.html Posted October 7, 2008 12:58 AM
Rick Stewart writes:
Arnold supports 'the effort to increase the rate of home ownership among minorities and people with low incomes.' Why? Only 43% of Germans own their own homes. About 90% of Mexicans own their own homes. The US is half way between, and you want us to move in which direction? I suggest the government has no business caring how many Americans own their own homes, which Americans those are, nor how many homes presidential candidates own. Posted October 7, 2008 6:25 AM
Nick Rowe writes:
Francis above asks why Canadian banks, which use method A, did not fail in the 70's and 80's. Jim above points out that method A fails if the banks have all their eggs in one local housing basket. I think that might be the key? Canadian banks are bigger (no rules against interstate banking) and so more regionally diversified. And more diversified outside the mortgage market as well. Posted October 7, 2008 6:57 AM
Thomas Dinsmore writes:
One historical point. The traditional building and loan did not make thirty-year fixed rate loans; the typical mortgage prior to the Depression was a five year interest-only balloon note with no prepayment penalty. The homeowner rolled over the balance into a new loan at a new rate at the end of the term. Many employed and creditworthy homeowners defaulted during the Depression because their note came due during the financial crisis and it was impossible to refinance the balance due. Fixed rate long term mortgages are primarily a phenomenon of the US market and are rare in Canada and elsewhere. Posted October 7, 2008 8:56 AM
Paul writes:
Arnold, You don't say anything about the pressure brought to bear by government to force banks to make home loans to people with low incomes and bad credit. This began in earnest in the 1990s. Do you not see that as a significant factor? Posted October 7, 2008 9:11 AM
Arnold Kling writes:
I think of the pressure to lend in those markets was part, but only part, of the push toward Method B lending. I think that a lot of the minority and low-income borrowers were actually good risks. But lending to anyone without a substantial down payment, particularly for speculating on a house that is not a primary residence, is not safe. Posted October 7, 2008 10:13 AM
Francis writes:
Nick: Thanks for your answer. Diversification may be the key, you are right, but as for size, I don't think it matters because the big inflation and subsequent disinflation were nation-wide. Thomas: Fixed 30-year mortgages were not rare in Canada. They were no longer available in the 80's and 90's, but they resurfaced in the 2000's. In 1991, I heard an old person tell me that one of his relatives was still having one from the 60's. Posted October 7, 2008 11:19 AM
Hanstaruna Invest Tools writes:
i think this crisis told us to never invest more than our capacity, because every investment has a risk. Posted October 7, 2008 11:25 AM
Alex J. writes:
In the commodities markets, it is routine for someone who buys corn from a farmer (which is a long position) to short corn through the CBOT. If a bank makes a 30 year fixed loan, that's a bet against inflation. Why can't the bank buy gold or short 30 bonds or make some other counter-balancing investment to hedge their interest rate risk? Posted October 7, 2008 11:59 AM
Thomas Dinsmore writes:
Francis, Suppose it depends on the meaning of "rare". Am unable to quickly locate a source on Canadian mortgage originations; however, brief review of mortgage broker websites in Canada shows none offering terms greater than ten years. Feel free to post a dispositive source. Posted October 7, 2008 12:01 PM
Francis writes:
Thomas: You are right, it all depends whether 'rare' means 'rarer than in the U.S.' or not. Yet they are available. Find here a fixed-rate 25-year mortgage: http://www.rbcroyalbank.com/RBC:SOuLho71JsUAC6D@g2A/products/mortgages/view_rates.html Alex: You are also right that bankers here will often talk about their 'appariement' (French for 'matching'), meaning that they must match somehow the number of X-year mortgages they sell with the number of X-year closed deposits they get. I don't know, though, if this is a regulated practice or not. Posted October 7, 2008 12:31 PM
Thomas Dinsmore writes:
Francis, The Canadian government thinks that long-term fixed rate mortgages are sufficiently rare that this primer states that fixed terms are available "up to ten years". http://www.acfc-fcac.gc.ca/eng/publications/mortgages/TypesOfMortgages_e.asp Posted October 7, 2008 1:31 PM
Kevin writes:
Maybe I have no common sense, but why is Method A better than Method B? It seems that Method A concentrates risk for lenders and exposes borrowers to the unique preferences of a particular lender in shopping for rates. Sure some of the products are riskier, but I take the "Method" to mean securitization of mortgages generally. Don't forget that 30-year fixed mortgages with 20% down are securitized too. Are you saying that Method B pooling and securitization of Method A style mortgages is inefficient in and of itself because of the value destroyed by originator moral hazard? If not, why blame Method B? Why not just point the finger at the riskier products? Posted October 7, 2008 7:11 PM
Rich writes:
"These were almost always 30-year, fixed-rate loans, with borrowers having made a significant down payment, often 20 percent of the price of the home." I am new to the mortgage debate, but this claim seems inconsistent with the data in the Statistical Abstract. The SA provides the percent of loans with adjustable rates beginning in 1982, and they only provide it for "Conventional First Mortgage Loans for Purchase of Single-Family Homes." Still, the data show a fairly clear downward trend in the percentage of loans with an adjustable rate, and adjustable rates were extremely common in the early 1980s. In 1984 they accounted for over sixty percent of all conventional loans to purchase existing homes. Again according to the Statistical Abstract, S&Ls still dominated mortgage lending at the time - accounting for 43% of all outstanding home mortgages in 1982 and 40$ in 1984; Agency and government-sponsored enterprises-backed mortgage pools accounted for just 16% in 1982 and 21% in 1984. Is the problem that the data excludes subprime loans? That it excludes refinancing? Posted October 8, 2008 9:12 AM
Richard Boltuck writes:
Questions for Arnold: First, regulatory favoritism results from rent-seeking/lobbying activities. How do you propose to limit this? Second, with securitized mortgages, is there any way to anticipate and manage systemic risk, or is it an inherent and destructive externality? Third, you do not expressly discuss moral hazard and arising from deposit insurance and "too-big-to-fail" insurance. If not offset/controlled by appropriate regulation (and recall that regulation is subject to industry capture), moral hazard leads to excessive risk-taking (what you call in a related context, gambling with other peoples' money) for short-term profit, a rational strategy. Is there any solution within a democracy to the pernicious combination of ineffective regulation and the time inconsistency that assures that government will always bailout too-big-to-fail institutions (or too-many-to-fail smaller institutions)? Fourth, are other innovations in mortgages, such as recourse lending that turns the current one-way borrower bet on rising home prices into a legitimate two-way bet? American mortgages are currently non-recourse. (A financial columnist at the Australian wrote the other day in the WSJ that mortgages in Australia are recourse loans, so underwater borrowers are still pursued for the full amount due). Granted, 20% down goes part way toward this goal, but changing the legal terms would also move the goal posts. Would it be prudent to do so? Posted October 8, 2008 10:49 AM
Rich writes:
I think I found the answer to my own question - S&Ls were not allowed to issue adjustable rate mortgages until passage of the Garn-St Germain Depository Institutions Act in 1982. However, it seems difficult to attribute the rise of adjustable rate mortgages to regulations that purportedly encourage them when your comparison is to a time when they were effectively not allowed. Posted October 9, 2008 8:31 AM
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