ARNOLD KLING
August 14, 2011
The Top Political Contributors
August 11, 2011
Gender and the New Commanding Heights
August 11, 2011
Jamie Galbraith Makes an Assumption
August 11, 2011
Macroeconometrics: The Science of Hubris
August 10, 2011
Real and Nominal Bond Yields
BRYAN CAPLAN
August 14, 2011
The Effect of Thumb Sucking on Income
August 12, 2011
The Voice of Cold, Hard Truth to All Would-Be Educators
August 12, 2011
Ability, Morality, and Prosperity: A Paper and a Report
August 11, 2011
The Theory of Time and Frittering
August 10, 2011
Male Variance and the Remnants of the Gender Gap
DAVID HENDERSON
August 9, 2011
Hayek in "Unbroken", Part Two
August 8, 2011
Hayek in "Unbroken"
August 5, 2011
James Bovard on the Peace Corps
August 4, 2011
Summers Way Off on FDR and 1941
August 3, 2011
The "Amazon" Tax


Arnold,
Look at these transactions from the viewpoint of the Fed's balance sheet. On the asset side, anything that the Fed buys (from apples and gold to mortgages) indeed has an effect on its price. On the liability side, the Fed can finance its purchases by issuing currency or issuing bonds or borrowing from banks or someone else. The question is which of these liabilities are "perfect" substitutes of currency. The concept of monetary base assumes that currency and bank reserves with the Fed are "perfect" substitutes. Any reserves that pay interest are not "perfect" substitues of currency and any reserves that banks cannot use freely are not "perfect" substitutes of currency. So JH, GM and anyone else that analyze the supply of "money" using the monetary base and the multiplier are wrong. The inflationary impact of these special reservers that are NOT "perfect" substitutes of currency is quite different from what one may conclude from applying the quantity theory of money or any concept of nominal shock.
The fed can raise or lower interest rates at will, so I don't really understand your point. Could you clarify it please?
Traditionally the Fed has purchased assets which are of a liquid type. The most obvious examples are Treasuries, which made up the bulk of its sheet, and gold.
Its new actions of buying agency debt (eg, Fannie Mae) and MBSs which were illiquid even at the time they were purchased (which opens a line of question on their purchase price as well) is new.
Why it is doing this must have a political, not a monetary, component. There is no monetary policy reason the Fed would rather have X units of MBSs when it might have had Y units of Treasuries or Z ounces of gold. It is a basic principal of commodity money that one always wants to hold the commodity that everyone else wants to hold. Conversely, one does not want to hold the commodity that no one else wants to hold. Looking at those MBSs, agency debt, etc. as something like commodities behind the Fed notes, it is bizarre in the extreme to choose assets which no one else wants, and consequently cannot be easily disposed of and have very uncertain value. No central banker would do such a thing except for political reasons.