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The author at Eli Dourado in a related article titled Forensic Semantics: The Meaning of Liquidity Trap writes:
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Jason writes:
Lets start with the quantity equation MV=PY, assume sticky prices and a fixed monetary policy. Then government spending only affects output if it moves velocity. The way it does this is by increasing interest rates. At the zero lower bound if fiscal policy literally does not move interest rates and therefore velocity then it cannot move output. Standard IS-LM in a "liquidity trap" says that the LM curve is NEAR horizontal. In this case, the government increases spending and interest rates go up very slightly, but this leads to a large decrease in money demand because money demand is so sensitive to interest rates. However, if fiscal policy literally does not increase interest rates at all, its kind of a stretch to see why it moves velocity and therefore output. Posted March 18, 2011 9:13 PM
Eli writes:
I read Krugman #1 as consistent with Krugman #2, but both are wrong. Krugman #1 is saying that monetary policy is a priori ineffective at the zero bound because it substitutes one zero-interest-rate asset (cash) for another (bonds). Krugman #1 and Krugman #2 are both wrong because it's not as if there is only one interest rate. Monetary policy can be conducted with riskier assets (or there can be a helicopter drop, or whatever). Conceptually, the only reasonable way of interpreting the concept of a "liquidity trap" is as infinitely elastic demand for money. That would be the only way that monetary policy would be ineffective. Posted March 18, 2011 9:17 PM
c141nav writes:
Remarks of Krugman’s former ombudsman at the New York Times, Daniel Okrent: Posted March 20, 2011 9:41 AM
David C writes:
Alternatively, Krugman could be arguing that situations 1 and 2 don't ever exist or that situations 1 and 2 cause situation 3 in all cases. Posted March 20, 2011 1:41 PM
Charles R. Williams writes:
The notion of a liquidity trap presumes that the government controls money directly. But if banking - understood in its broadest sense as the process of financial intermediation - has slipped out of the central bank's control, money has become endogenous, unless we define money in such a narrow fashion that it becomes meaningless or unless some financial panic damages the broader banking system. So the impotence of monetary policy arises not from the fact that the central banks converts one zero return asset into another but from the fact that the banking system is perfectly capable of offsetting any central bank operations as the markets require. If the banks can freely monetize T-bonds, what difference does it make when the fed monetizes T-bonds? The interest rate is irrelevant. There are two situations where the central bank can make a difference: first, they can step in in the event of some kind of financial panic to assume some otherwise private banking functions (e.g., QE1); second, the regulated banking sector is big enough that if the central bank damages it through gross mismanagement, it can damage the economy. Posted March 21, 2011 8:00 AM
Doc Merlin writes:
1) If you can print infinite money without raising the price level, then you can generate infinite real wealth by printing currency. This strikes me as absurd. This is frankly absurd. Posted March 21, 2011 8:13 PM
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