ARNOLD KLING
January 11, 2012
AEA Panel on Economics Blogging
January 11, 2012
What Banks are (not) Doing
January 11, 2012
The Case for a Re-org of the Executive Branch
January 11, 2012
Capitalism Without Capital
January 10, 2012
Why Foreclosure Prevention is Not Helpful
BRYAN CAPLAN
January 12, 2012
Give Me A Dozen Examples
January 11, 2012
The Demented Pacifism of Irving Fisher
January 10, 2012
Return to "What Could President Paul Actually Do?"
January 10, 2012
Eureka! Economic Illiteracy as Mental Substitution
January 9, 2012
Kahneman, Mental Effort, and the Scary Parole Study
DAVID HENDERSON
January 11, 2012
Don Lavoie on the Socialist Calculation Debate
January 9, 2012
Mitt Romney on Mercantilism
January 8, 2012
Bryan Caplan on Income Inequality
January 7, 2012
Sylvia Nasar's Grand Pursuit
January 6, 2012
Bastiat's Insight on Government Inaction


Isn't that the point - to justify an ever-increasing state and secure government jobs for the credentialed elite, all in the name of helping the poor?
The late John W. Campbell used to remark that there is a group of people determined to see that one-third of Americans will always live in substandard housing, have below-average income, and have below-normal educational attainments. That group of people is the statisticians, who define things like average and standard. The new definition of poverty is one more example of how he was right.
Joe,
Not sure what you mean by average but you'll likely always see at least 65% of Americans with below average incomes. Those years where more than 30% of Americans made average or more were usually recession years anyway. In fact, over the last 30 years, there has not been a year when at least 68+% of American's had incomes at or below average.
Strictly speaking, you can eliminate relative poverty by making incomes sufficiently equal. For example, nuclear holocaust would do the trick: everyone's equally dead, so there's no poverty. If what matters is *welfare,* though, reducing relative poverty shouldn't be the target.
Although it is a relative definition of poverty, this particular definition does not appear to preclude the elimination of poverty. As long as the percentage of total income spent on food, clothing, housing, and utilities is declining for the 33rd percentile (due to rising incomes and falling prices), then we'd expect poverty rates to decline for a given income distribution, even if it is not "sufficiently equal." I don't know whether this is in fact happening, but it doesn't seem impossible.
Of course, I'd assume that, in practice, as fewer and fewer households were considered poor by this definition, the baseline set of "necessities" would grow (healthcare, transportation, education, ...).
If they defined poverty in absolute terms it would have been eradicated since the 70s.